Excuse my ignorance here folks. I've been told (and read in magazines) that, whenever possible) you should bi-wire your speakers (assuming just one amp, lets ignore bi-amping for now). I have a Rotel RA-01 (which has A & B speaker outputs) and Quad 11L speakers (which are bi-wireable). As I understand it the benefit of bi-wiring is that the bass gets sent to one set of speaker terminals and the treble to the other which results in less "muddying" of the signal as the bass can tend to swamp the treble on the cable. However, how does it split the bass and treble to separate cable runs? Surely the bass and treble go down both runs of speaker cable but the terminals only accept either high or low frequency depending on which driver they are connected to? If this is the case surely the bass is still being transmitted across the cable? Or am I just stupid? (Probably ) I did try bi-wiring (but with fairly cheap cable) and couldn't tell any difference. I've now used more expensive (but still fairly cheap - £3.49/metre) and thicker cable but am currently only single wiring. Will I notice the difference now I've got better cable? The guy in the shop thought so but he would say that wouldn't he?